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religion · Shared topic · Revision 0

Was the Virgin Birth a Mistranslation?

Was the Virgin Birth a Mistranslation?

Starting explanation, not independently reviewed

The current answer

The Hebrew says young woman, the Greek says virgin, and the honest answer corrects both sides of the usual argument.

What remains uncertain

This starting summary presents the original essay’s position. It has not received independent topic review. Its citations have been imported, not checked. Competing explanations and important objections may still be missing.

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Claims & evidence

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Isaiah 7:14 in Hebrew uses the word almah, which means a young woman of marriageable age, not the specific Hebrew word for virgin, bethulah.

Imported citation, not independently checked: Isaiah 7:14, Hebrew text

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Isaiah 7 is set during the Syro-Ephraimite crisis around 734 BCE, when King Ahaz of Judah is terrified because two neighboring kings, Rezin of Aram and Pekah of Israel, have allied against him.

Imported citation, not independently checked: Isaiah 7:1-16

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Matthew 1:22-23 quotes Isaiah 7:14 in its Greek, parthenos form and presents the birth of Jesus to the virgin Mary as its fulfillment.

Imported citation, not independently checked: Matthew 1:22-23

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Also bedrock, and usually left out by the skeptics: the "virgin" reading is not a Christian mistranslation but a pre-Christian Jewish rendering in the Septuagint, which Matthew then used.

Imported citation, not independently checked: Septuagint, Isaiah 7:14, bedrock

The strongest objections

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No objection has been independently reviewed yet. This is a gap to investigate, not evidence that the answer is settled.

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What changed, and why

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